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  LiveWire / Teen Forums / Science & Business / Viewing Topic

A question on probability.
Replies: 23Last Post Jan. 12, 2007 9:21am by Apotheosis
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( medjai )



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Assume a new model of the universe.

1. Infinite space.
2. From our planet, we can observe 9 other planets in the immediate area (for a total of ten planets in our space 'region').
3. We observe 9 planets in each region immediately bordering our own.
4. Eight planets beyond that one.
5. Seven planets beyond that one.
So on and so on until we no longer see any planets, we do not have the technology to observe beyond the regions where there are only three known planets in each.

Is there an infinite number of planets in this model of the universe?

Post edited at 8:25 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 by medjai

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8:25 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Nov. 2003 | 1275 Days Active
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luvinmychica


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Well theoretically that would be correct. If there is truly infinite space then there would by theory be infinite planets.

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8:33 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined May 2004 | 905 Days Active
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Yummu

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Wouldn't that depend upon the amount of regions there are?

I mean, like how many regions border ours? and so on...

Onc could assume that the next regions beyond our view would have two, and then one it would seem.

Post edited at 8:36 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 by Rastafarian

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8:33 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Sep. 2005 | 759 Days Active
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( medjai )



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Assume infinite regions.

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8:44 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Nov. 2003 | 1275 Days Active
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Jay JWLH


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If the addition of more planets decreased by each region bordering our own, I believe we would have a number but I destroyed my maths books so you will have to figure that part out.
My quickest calculation would have to be 362880.

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( medjai )



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Onc could assume that the next regions beyond our view would have two, and then one it would seem.

Why could one assume that? What if right after the regions with three planets, there are regions with four, or seven, or seven million?

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8:45 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Nov. 2003 | 1275 Days Active
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Yummu

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I think there would be a number, but it alll depends on the amount of regions that border each subsequently decreasing region... until of course you end up amoungst the regions with no planets amoung them. Then any region after that is inconsequential as to the amount of planets there are.

       
     |10| - region 1
     
         9
    9 |10| 9 - region 1 and 4 region 2...
         9

and so on. But alternatively look like this.
       9|9
   9 |10| 9
       9|9

All regions still border the region that came before, but there are more of them...

And so on.

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'Let "desire" be forever stricken from the dictionary, and
from the soul! I retreat before the dizzying farce of
tomorrows. And if I still cling to a few hopes, I have lost
forever the faculty of hoping.' - E.M Cioran


8:54 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Sep. 2005 | 759 Days Active
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gregorymahony

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Its a silly question as its non answerable.We don't know, but as technology advances hopefully we will.However, welldone on thinking about intelligent subjects.

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Gregory Mahony -(www.gregorymahony.com)

9:02 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Dec. 2006 | 116 Days Active
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gregorymahony

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nvm lol

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Gregory Mahony -(www.gregorymahony.com)

9:02 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Dec. 2006 | 116 Days Active
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gregorymahony

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i thought you were referring to our universe

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Gregory Mahony -(www.gregorymahony.com)

9:02 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Dec. 2006 | 116 Days Active
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telomere13


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I have absolutely no idea what this problem is trying to say.

So we have no idea how many planets are in a particular region, just how many we observe?  If so that means there must be at least the observed number of planets in any region, but there could be any higher number.  Thus the answer is not a definitive "no;" it's either "yes" or "impossible to determine."  The description of the geometry seems pretty vague to me and so I'm pretty confused here, but as long as we know there aren't an infinite number of regions within 3 "layers" then we can safely say that it's possible that we're observing all of the planets in existence and that that number is finite.  Thus the number can be both finite or infinite.

Am I missing something here?

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9:08 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined April 2005 | 941 Days Active
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( medjai )



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My question is whether or not infinite space necessitates an infinite number of planets assuming some can be observed in a quantum universe.

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10:14 pm on Jan. 8, 2007 | Joined Nov. 2003 | 1275 Days Active
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telomere13


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I don't believe so, no.

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myystic


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If we're assuming infinite space, we're assuming we can't explore all of it.

Therefore, I cannot give a definative answer.

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4:46 am on Jan. 9, 2007 | Joined Dec. 2004 | 936 Days Active
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Just another kid


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People tend to assume that trends continue throughout, so in our own universe, we can see galaxies scattered about, and we assume that there's no reason why they shouldn't be scattered about everywhere. The obvious trend in your model is 2 then 1 plantes, so I guess people will assume that until they learn better.

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