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( drkberry )
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Why is there a large muslim immigration in parts of Europe? If European citizens want to secure their homeland, then why are their government allowing immigrants to settle in? What is aryan race? Does that include indians and pakistans? What are US white KKK members fighting for, when this initially was not a white man's country. What is white culture. Europe has different cultures, but I think whites do have a culture in the US.
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jakelong
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All very good questions. Let's see if the local racialists WNs can answer all that.
------- "Everyone helpin' each other whenever they can we makin' it happen, from nothin' to somethin' That's how we be survivin'" - BEP
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12:16 am on Dec. 2, 2008 | Joined: Aug. 2005 | Days Active: 700 Join to learn more about jakelong California, United States | Straight Male | Posts: 12,556 | Points: 21,864
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kidd rune
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Why is there a large muslim immigration in parts of Europe? 
They are "Asylum Seekers" and trying to escape poverty, war, and other things. Many would rather mooch off of the government and raise crime in cities than live in their own country.
If European citizens want to secure their homeland, then why are their government allowing immigrants to settle in? 
Because the government and citizens aren't the same thing. Many of the governments are left-wing, but the right-wing is rising in popularity because many of the Europeans are starting to think twice about immigration.
What is aryan race? Does that include indians and pakistans? 
Indo-Europeans. They composed of Nordic, Mediterranean, and some Alpine elements - then they mixed to create other classifications of Europeans. Indians and Pakistanis? The ones of today - no. The ones of hundreds of years ago? Some of them.
Aryan race is supposed to be a pure white race of blonde hair, blue eyes people. 
I lol'd. Not even holocaust historians say that anymore!
What are US white KKK members fighting for, when this initially was not a white man's country. 
First, when you say it wasn't a "White man's country" are you saying it wasn't White mans LAND? The country was created by Whites. The original, first era Klan? Its activities were directed against the reconstruction governments and their leaders (black or white) that came into power in the Southern states in 1867.
What is white culture. Europe has different cultures, but I think whites do have a culture in the US. 
White culture is all of the cultures of Whites together - White culture is many cultures together.
KKK wants to get rid of all the minority's from Jews to blacks. 
Not all of the KKK groups do.
------- "Every Jew, somewhere in his being, should set apart a zone of hate -- healthy, virile hate -- for what the German personifies and for what persists in the German. To do otherwise would be a betrayal of the dead." - Elie Wiesel
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jakelong
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Indo-European refers to language NOT people
The Indo-European languages comprise a family of several hundred related languages and dialects,[1] including most of the major languages of Europe, the Iranian plateau (Southwest Asia), much of Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent (South Asia). The Indo-European (Indo refers to the Indian subcontinent, since geographically the language group extends from Europe in the west to India in the east) group has the largest numbers of speakers of the recognised families of languages in the world today, with its languages spoken by approximately three billion native speakers
Of the top 20 contemporary languages in terms of native speakers according to SIL Ethnologue, 12 are Indo-European: Spanish, English, Hindi, Portuguese, Bengali, Russian, German, Marathi, French, Italian, Punjabi and Urdu, accounting for over 1.6 billion native speakers
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_languages Now if you interested on who the early speakers of those Indo-European lanagues are then read this:
The Proto-Indo-Europeans (PIE) were the speakers of the Proto-Indo-European language, who likely lived around 4000 BC, during the Copper Age and the Bronze Age, or possibly earlier, during the Neolithic or Paleolithic eras. Knowledge of them comes chiefly from the reconstruction of their language, which was the ancestor of the Indo-European languages, including English. Their genetics and phenotypes are unknown.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_people
In the twentieth century Marija Gimbutas created a modern variation on the traditional invasion theory (the Kurgan hypothesis, after the Kurgans (burial mounds) of the Eurasian steppes) in which the Indo-Europeans were a nomadic tribe of the Pontic-Caspian steppe (today Eastern Ukraine and Southern Russia) and expanded in several waves during the 3rd millennium BC. Their expansion coincided with the taming of the horse. Leaving archaeological signs of their presence (see battle-axe people), they subjugated the peaceful European Neolithic farmers of Gimbutas's Old Europe.
http://indo-european.eu/wiki/index.php/Main_Page Sounds lik the original "aryans" were central asians from the steppes... On the genetics there's a lot of dispute. Here's one theroy
Cavalli-Sforza (2000) states that "It is clear that, genetically speaking, peoples of the Kurgan steppe descended at least in part from people of the Middle Eastern Neolithic who immigrated there from Turkey." 
Wells suggests the origin, distribution and age of R1a1 points to an ancient migration, possibly corresponding to the spread by the Kurgan people in their expansion across the Eurasian steppe around 3000 BC. 
In case you wonder the R1a1 gene i really common among Russians and East Europeans.
R1a1 is most prevalent in Poland, Russia, and Ukraine, and is also observed in Pakistan, India and central Asia. R1a1 is largely confined east of the Vistula gene barrier[14] and drops considerably to the west: R1a1 measurements read 6.2% to Germans (a 4X drop to Czechs and Slovakians reading 26,7%) and 3.7% to Dutch.
So one thing for sure: Aryans are NOT German or nordics. QED
------- "Everyone helpin' each other whenever they can we makin' it happen, from nothin' to somethin' That's how we be survivin'" - BEP
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1:40 am on Dec. 3, 2008 | Joined: Aug. 2005 | Days Active: 700 Join to learn more about jakelong California, United States | Straight Male | Posts: 12,556 | Points: 21,864
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kidd rune
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quote]Indo-European refers to language NOT people The Indo-European languages comprise a family of several hundred related languages and dialects,[1] including most of the major languages of Europe, the Iranian plateau (Southwest Asia), much of Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent (South Asia). The Indo-European (Indo refers to the Indian subcontinent, since geographically the language group extends from Europe in the west to India in the east) group has the largest numbers of speakers of the recognised families of languages in the world today, with its languages spoken by approximately three billion native speakers Of the top 20 contemporary languages in terms of native speakers according to SIL Ethnologue, 12 are Indo-European: Spanish, English, Hindi, Portuguese, Bengali, Russian, German, Marathi, French, Italian, Punjabi and Urdu, accounting for over 1.6 billion native speakers http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_languages Now if you interested on who the early speakers of those Indo-European lanagues are then read this: The Proto-Indo-Europeans (PIE) were the speakers of the Proto-Indo-European language, who likely lived around 4000 BC, during the Copper Age and the Bronze Age, or possibly earlier, during the Neolithic or Paleolithic eras. Knowledge of them comes chiefly from the reconstruction of their language, which was the ancestor of the Indo-European languages, including English. Their genetics and phenotypes are unknown. That fits nicely with the Kurgan theory - which is probably why it's the most accepted. And the whole "Their genetics and phenotypes are unknown" doesn't prove anything. I've referred you to this many times: http://www.mediafire.com/download.php?jgrjqzm3yka In the twentieth century Marija Gimbutas created a modern variation on the traditional invasion theory (the Kurgan hypothesis, after the Kurgans (burial mounds) of the Eurasian steppes) in which the Indo-Europeans were a nomadic tribe of the Pontic-Caspian steppe (today Eastern Ukraine and Southern Russia) and expanded in several waves during the 3rd millennium BC. Their expansion coincided with the taming of the horse. Leaving archaeological signs of their presence (see battle-axe people), they subjugated the peaceful European Neolithic farmers of Gimbutas's Old Europe. http://indo-european.eu/wiki/index.php/Main_Page Sounds lik the original "aryans" were central asians from the steppes... On the genetics there's a lot of dispute. Here's one theroy Cavalli-Sforza (2000) states that "It is clear that, genetically speaking, peoples of the Kurgan steppe descended at least in part from people of the Middle Eastern Neolithic who immigrated there from Turkey." Wells suggests the origin, distribution and age of R1a1 points to an ancient migration, possibly corresponding to the spread by the Kurgan people in their expansion across the Eurasian steppe around 3000 BC. In case you wonder the R1a1 gene i really common among Russians and East Europeans. R1a1 is most prevalent in Poland, Russia, and Ukraine, and is also observed in Pakistan, India and central Asia. R1a1 is largely confined east of the Vistula gene barrier[14] and drops considerably to the west: R1a1 measurements read 6.2% to Germans (a 4X drop to Czechs and Slovakians reading 26,7%) and 3.7% to Dutch. So one thing for sure: Aryans are NOT German or nordics. QED Central Asians from the steppes? What's your point? The Kurgan Theory claims the original Aryans to be from AROUND THE BLACK SEA - what I've been saying this whole time. And the "Middle Eastern" again proves nothing. The Caucasian (And White) races no doubt started in the Middle East... And you're using R1a1 Y-Chromosomal Haplogroups as proof of genetics? That's ONE Chromosome! That proves NOTHING of genetics besides great-great-great-great grandparents. And we all know how common R1b (which came from R1 like R1a) is in Keltics... And then you say that you're sure it's not Nordics... I lol'd bad. It's so funny you equate Y-Chromosome as race. It's even funnier that Ukraine and Russia are about 1/2 Nordic.
------- "Every Jew, somewhere in his being, should set apart a zone of hate -- healthy, virile hate -- for what the German personifies and for what persists in the German. To do otherwise would be a betrayal of the dead." - Elie Wiesel
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jakelong
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Why do you repost what I wrote?
------- "Everyone helpin' each other whenever they can we makin' it happen, from nothin' to somethin' That's how we be survivin'" - BEP
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3:43 pm on Dec. 3, 2008 | Joined: Aug. 2005 | Days Active: 700 Join to learn more about jakelong California, United States | Straight Male | Posts: 12,556 | Points: 21,864
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jakelong
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Quote: from kidd rune at 3:19 pm on Dec. 3, 2008
Central Asians from the steppes? What's your point? 
My point? That those central asians and people from the Caucasus are the better candidates for Aryans than you western Europeans who were replaced or mixed with neolithic population.
And the "Middle Eastern" again proves nothing.
I am not trying to "prove" anything. I am showing that We still don't the answer to "Who is the Aryan?" Heck we probably know more about who is a jew than who is an aryan Unlike you I don;t have to prove or disprove. Just question.
The Caucasian (And White) races no doubt started in the Middle East... 
1. We have no proof that the People from the Caucasus were white 2. You yourself say that Caucasians are not all white 3. If whites are from the Middle East then why consider people from the Middle East as nonwhites? Why claim that jews or arabs are nonwhites? Who is white" really?
And you're using R1a1 Y-Chromosomal Haplogroups as proof of genetics? That's ONE Chromosome! 
The Y chormosome is most commonly used chromosome to trace ancestry especially at the ethnic level. Ask any geneticist and modern anthropologist.
That proves NOTHING of genetics besides great-great-great-great grandparents. 
Geneticists often use male ancestry to trace the movement of population. Isn't that relevant to figuring out where the so-called aryans come from?
The two most common types of genetic genealogy tests are Y-DNA (paternal line) and mtDNA (maternal line) genealogical DNA tests. These tests involve the comparison of certain sequences of DNA pairs of individuals in order to estimate the probability that they share a common ancestor in a genealogical time frame and, through the use of a Bayesian model published by Bruce Walsh, to estimate the number of generations separating the two individuals from their most recent common ancestor. Y-DNA research involves short tandem repeat (STR) and, sometimes, single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) testing of the Y-chromosome. The Y-chromosome is present only in males and reveals information on the strict paternal line. These tests can provide insight in the recent (via STRs) and ancient (via SNPs) genetic ancestry. A Y-chromosome STR test will reveal a haplotype, which should be similar among all male descendants of a male ancestor. SNP tests are used to assign people to a paternal haplogroup, which defines a genetic population. mtDNA research involves sequencing the HVR-1 region, HVR-2 region or both. A mtDNA test can also be used to assign people to a maternal haplogroup. 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_genealogy Mitochondrial DNA is used more to differentiate between individuals and for forensics. Either methods can be used. You really know shit about genetics.
And we all know how common R1b (which came from R1 like R1a) is in Keltics... 
We call them Celtics. Except that R1a1 is the one that was found...I wouldn't exlude them right off but they are NOT the MAIN guys involved.
And then you say that you're sure it's not Nordics..
Nordic as in Scandinavian. I don't listen to Nordish BS. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nordic_countries
I lol'd bad. 
Actually you react like you're having a fit. That psychopath laugh gets you every time.
It's so funny you equate Y-Chromosome as race. 
I never mentioned race. I mentioned ethnicity. Proof again you are obsessed.
------- "Everyone helpin' each other whenever they can we makin' it happen, from nothin' to somethin' That's how we be survivin'" - BEP
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5:04 pm on Dec. 3, 2008 | Joined: Aug. 2005 | Days Active: 700 Join to learn more about jakelong California, United States | Straight Male | Posts: 12,556 | Points: 21,864
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kidd rune
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My point? That those central asians and people from the Caucasus are the better candidates for Aryans than you western Europeans who were replaced or mixed with neolithic population. 
These people were? You have never answered this question really - and once you said Neanderthals :P
And the "Middle Eastern" again proves nothing. I am not trying to "prove" anything. I am showing that We still don't the answer to "Who is the Aryan?" Heck we probably know more about who is a jew than who is an aryan Unlike you I don;t have to prove or disprove. Just question. 
You say we "Don't know" but that all hangs on your definition of knowing. There are so many theories someone has to be right - but we don't know who. We have to wait for more genetic tests - but we'll eventually find out FOR SURE.
The Caucasian (And White) races no doubt started in the Middle East... 1. We have no proof that the People from the Caucasus were white 2. You yourself say that Caucasians are not all white 3. If whites are from the Middle East then why consider people from the Middle East as nonwhites? Why claim that jews or arabs are nonwhites? Who is white" really? 
1. On the contrary - I have proof. It's just technically a theory and it can't be seen as pure fact - but nothing really can. Many things that aren't proven are spoken of as true. 3. Because they MIXED, were of different [sub]race, or evolved.
The Y chormosome is most commonly used chromosome to trace ancestry especially at the ethnic level. Ask any geneticist and modern anthropologist. 
I know what it does. It tells you the migration paths of your great great great great..... grandpa. Ethnic level? Here we go again! Y-Haplogroups of different nature can exist in different places. A British man has about a 60% chance of being R1b - while an Italian has a 40% chance. Can you really determine "Ethnicity" by that? A Norwegian has about a 30% chance of R1a - and an Indian has a 40% chance. Same ethnicity? Didn't think so.
Geneticists often use male ancestry to trace the movement of population. Isn't that relevant to figuring out where the so-called aryans come from?
We pretty much know where they came from. Check out the Kurgan Theory.
The two most common types of genetic genealogy tests are Y-DNA (paternal line) and mtDNA (maternal line) genealogical DNA tests. These tests involve the comparison of certain sequences of DNA pairs of individuals in order to estimate the probability that they share a common ancestor in a genealogical time frame and, through the use of a Bayesian model published by Bruce Walsh, to estimate the number of generations separating the two individuals from their most recent common ancestor. Y-DNA research involves short tandem repeat (STR) and, sometimes, single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) testing of the Y-chromosome. The Y-chromosome is present only in males and reveals information on the strict paternal line. These tests can provide insight in the recent (via STRs) and ancient (via SNPs) genetic ancestry. A Y-chromosome STR test will reveal a haplotype, which should be similar among all male descendants of a male ancestor. SNP tests are used to assign people to a paternal haplogroup, which defines a genetic population. mtDNA research involves sequencing the HVR-1 region, HVR-2 region or both. A mtDNA test can also be used to assign people to a maternal haplogroup. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_genealogy Mitochondrial DNA is used more to differentiate between individuals and for forensics. Either methods can be used. You really know shit about genetics. 
You claim I know "Shit" about genetics but you're saying that you can determine ethnicity by mtDNA or Y-haplogroups! About 50% of Brits have H mtDNA - while 25% of Uzbekistanis and 20% of South Pakistanis do. Pretty damn useful, correct? Or are they all the same ethnicity?
We call them Celtics. Except that R1a1 is the one that was found...I wouldn't exlude them right off but they are NOT the MAIN guys involved. 
It's a small mutation that doesn't even get its own letter - and is actually the same number too! R1a and R1b... not enough time to genetically evolve into a different race.
Nordic as in Scandinavian. I don't listen to Nordish BS. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nordic_countries 
Why not? Think the Nordish race doesn't exist?
Actually you react like you're having a fit. That psychopath laugh gets you every time. 
Yeah - because you're standing behind my back listening to it.
I never mentioned race. I mentioned ethnicity. Proof again you are obsessed. 
Funnier that you equate it with ethnicity! You really know the Y-Chromosome history of Europe!
------- "Every Jew, somewhere in his being, should set apart a zone of hate -- healthy, virile hate -- for what the German personifies and for what persists in the German. To do otherwise would be a betrayal of the dead." - Elie Wiesel
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( drkberry )
Dairy Product Addict
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Stop spreading your hateful racist propoganda....you're trying to recruit people to your hitlernism ways..kidd runne.
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( drkberry )
Dairy Product Addict
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Your stupid and so are your views, the power of the white man is over. Get over it!
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